Mike , you are not thinking this through. From my readings in Wilki etc, Spain already is very devolved with some 50 autonomous regions, and with extensive local powers and local democracy. It is likely that some of the other regions would like perhaps more autonomy also. But they have a consitution. All the other regions and all the other people's in Spain have a democratic right to be consulted . The way that is done is by a referendum. Despite all the big words about consulting the people what the Catalan officials have done and threaten to do is deeply undemocratic. It would be defranchising all the other regions.Tom,
I do support the right of a people to self determination, and the EU response to the referendum falls far short of what I would like to see.
The obvious way forward is for Madrid to acknowledge that there is a demand for independence and to organise a proper referendum under EU supervision to determine the real will of the Catalonian people.
And to accept the result.
The request by the Catalan officials to have EU engagement is tantamount to equating themselves as a sovereign power equivalent to Spain. It is a ploy and if the EU were foolish enough to seek to mediate out of some desire to stop violence, then they would de facto have destroyed Spain. and a civil war would ensue.
Spain has a court system, it has a constitutional court and it has the ability to change its consitution by referenda of all the citizens.[/QUOTE]
Daniel...you seem well informed about constitutional rights and our responsibilities towards those rights. From my brief research it seems to me Catalonia and its current borders date back to around 1649, later than that Cerdagne ( originally " Spanish/ Catalan) became French territory. Information regarding the size of French Catalonia is at best contradictory, with French Catalan numbers varying between 120, 000 to circa 1.5million. Now my question, taking into account the age of border placement,the confusing information surrounding even the whereabouts if the Catalan region.( some see all PO/ Languedoc Roussillon as part of Catalan) how can any Spanish constitution have consulted and acted upon the wishes of Catalans, especially in 1649. The constitution by definition is for and put in place by the Spanish. Did the Catalans have input into this, if so your point is correct, and Catalans should go through democratic process throughout all regions of Spain. If on the other hand they are operating under a Constitution formed just post Franco in 1978 with little input into its formation why should they follow the rules of a constitutional code enforced on them by a foreign power.
Did Catalans vote in the 1978 referendum to accept Spanish rule or was it just expected of them. I suspect the latter, they were unlikely to derail the then Spanish attempts at democracy, sparking a return to the Franco suppression. The 1978 acceptance of Spanish Constitutional reign was without doubt the regions only choice in 1978. To then quote that code back at the Catalans really is harking back to the Franco regime. Either accept the code or look what happens ? I don't think it takes into account at all the disassociation Catalans feel toward the Spanish and to a lesser degree the French.
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